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4votes
7answers
2kviews

How much can an observer know about its own quantum state?

Let me state my background: I am familiar with the usual formalism of QM, of how measurements are modeled, measurement problem, decoherence, etc. In thinking about the process of measurement, I was ...
sensorer's user avatar
4votes
4answers
443views

Solution to the measurement problem - explanation

Has the measurement problem been resolved? Could someone explain the current state-of-the-art understanding of why deterministic evolution results in a random measurement outcome? Is there a model ...
SSS's user avatar
  • 71
0votes
2answers
164views

Can the Many-Worlds Interpretation survive without assigning multiple copies of worlds for the same observation?

In Everett's original paper, he postulates a measure $\mu (x)$ to the branches of the universal wavefunction which correspond to measurement outcomes $x$, and argues that it should be given by the ...
Ryder Rude's user avatar
-3votes
1answer
94views

What are some experimental facts/logical reasons to dismiss arguments for consciousness collapse interpretations? [closed]

Let's start by defining consciousness collapse interpretation as the claim that, when we a person performs a measurement of a quantum system, a definite outcome is realised only when the person ...
Ryder Rude's user avatar
5votes
4answers
418views

Is there a resolution to the "Wigner's Friend" paradox?

Suppose that two observers $A$ and $B$ are mutually isolated, observer $A$ measures the state $|0\rangle + |1\rangle$ and concludes that the result is $|0\rangle$. However, observer $B$ concludes that ...
Davyz2's user avatar
0votes
3answers
155views

What happens if two people have different knowledge about a state in a quantum mechanical system?

Let’s say I measure the spin of an electron, but I don’t tell you what it is and you don’t measure it yourself. Does that change the wave function for you or does it remain the same either way? If it ...
Name's user avatar
0votes
1answer
147views

Does a Quantum System Really "Jump" to an Eigenstate When Observed?

Warning: This is a highly hypothetical question. I am bothered with Dirac's description of the system when making a measurement. Without quoting his statement (from The Principles of Quantum Mechanics,...
Con's user avatar
  • 31
6votes
4answers
969views

Exact time evolution of Stern-Gerlach (SG) apparatus

Background: I was always under the impression that when considering the Stern-Gerlach (SG) Experiment, the interpretation of the split of the beams is that the spin $1/2$ particle get measured the ...
2000mg Haigo 's user avatar
4votes
1answer
161views

Understanding Wigner’s friend scenario

I recently watched this video https://youtu.be/Wsjgtp9XZxo?si=sIRlAbvAm2wjXRNP and tried (unsuccessfully, because i don’t have the knowledge required) to read Bruckner’s paper. What i am missing, is ...
Marco Fabbri's user avatar
1vote
2answers
251views

How can the Copenhagen and Everett interpretations of quantum mechanics make the same predictions?

Suppose we have a spin $\frac{1}{2}$ particle in the spin-up state along the $z$-axis, $\lvert \uparrow \rangle$, and after $t$ seconds of evolution under the Schrodinger equation it is in state $\...
MBar2269's user avatar
0votes
0answers
54views

Measurement Problem Explained by Interaction of Operator With Adjoint Having Larger Domain?

Quantum physics axiomatically uses a self-adjoint operator for a measurement. In general, the adjoint of an operator has a larger domain than an operator. Could it be that the "measurement ...
EEatWork's user avatar
2votes
3answers
308views

Is the measurement problem an interpretation or practical problem?

According to Wikipedia: In quantum mechanics, the measurement problem is the problem of how, or whether, wave function collapse occurs. Is the measurement problem an interpretation problem or a ...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 1,609
0votes
4answers
324views

Is the many-worlds interpretation less ill-defined than the Copenhagen interpretation? [closed]

In my understanding, the Copenhagen interpretation is ill-defined in the following way. The interpretation says that wavefunctions collapse when a measurement is performed. But the Copenhagen ...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 1,609
3votes
3answers
935views

Can gravity cause a wave function to collapse?

Assume the Copenhagen interpretation. Suppose that a particle, for example an electron, has a wavefunction. If a heavy object, like the Earth, is close by, then that object interacts with the electron ...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 1,609
1vote
5answers
668views

Testability of consciousness-causes-collapse interpretation

The consciousness causes collapse a.k.a. Von Neumann–Wigner interpretation says that the wavefunction collapse occur only at the point when a conscious being observes the result. I myself find it ...
Daniel's user avatar

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